0
$\begingroup$

I am working with a convolution sum of the form

$$ h(j) = \sum_{k=0}^2 f\!\big((j-k) \bmod 3\big)\, g(k), $$

where $f, g : \{0,1,2\} \to \mathbb{C}$. Because of the modulo $3$ structure in the index shift, this looks like a (discrete?) circular convolution of $f$ and $g$. How can I rigorously show that it is indeed a circular convolution? Also, is this sum generalizable to any modulo $n$?

$\endgroup$
3
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ (1) If you want to show that a function is a circular convolution, what is the precise definition of circular convolution you are using? (2) To me the sum seems immediately generalizable to any $n$. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 30 at 3:14
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ People define convolution of functions over any Abelian group, and this is just the definition for $\mathbb Z_3$. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 30 at 3:43
  • $\begingroup$ You can find the definition of circular convolution on Wikipedia. Also, you can write the circular convolution in terms of a matrix-vector multiplication over the finite field ${\Bbb F}_3$ and this can be generalized to any finite ring $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 10 at 8:18

0

You must log in to answer this question.

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.