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If $A$ is a real square matrix with all row sums equal to 1 and $A$ commutes with its transpose then show that column sums of $A$ is also equal to 1

I tried to solve using the fact that $A1=1$ where $1$ is the column vector of proper size with all it's entries 1 and using the hypothesis. But couldn't proceed. Please help me.

Thanks in advance.

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  • $\begingroup$ No other conditions on $A$.. Which is the counterexample? $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 25, 2020 at 5:24
  • $\begingroup$ presumably $A$ has scalars in $\mathbb R$? $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 25, 2020 at 5:31
  • $\begingroup$ It is 12th exercise of first chapter here google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j&url=https://… $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 25, 2020 at 5:32
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    $\begingroup$ so $A^T A = AA^T$ implies $A$ is normal i.e. introducing complex numbers $U^* A U = D = U^*A^* U = U^* A^T U$, with $*$ denoting conjugate transpose. So $A\mathbf 1 = \mathbf 1$ says that $\mathbf 1$ is an eigenvector for $A$, but based on the above, it necessarily is an eigenvector for $A^* =A^T$ as well, i.e. column sums of $A$ are 1. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 25, 2020 at 5:36
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    $\begingroup$ @user8675309 What you wrote seems to imply $A$ is symmetric. But this doesn't follow. It looks like you assumed $D=D^*$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 25, 2020 at 6:38

3 Answers 3

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It becomes convenient to introduce complex numbers here.

$A^T A = AA^T = AA^* = A^*A$

so $A$ commutes with its conjugate transpose given by $A^* = A^T$, which means $A$ is normal and thus unitarily diagonalizable. So, selecting unitary matrix $U$, this implies

$U^{-1} A U =U^* A U = D$
or equivalently
$U^* A = DU^*$

your problem about row sums being equal to one implies an eigenvector equation, i.e. $A\mathbf 1 = \mathbf 1$. Your problem then wants you to confirm that $\mathbf 1^T A = \mathbf 1^T$. But this is implied by the above unitary diagonalization.

You may select (/assume WLOG) that $\mathbf u_1 = \mathbf 1$. I.e. the diagonal matrix $D$ is given by
$D = \pmatrix{1 & \mathbf 0^*\\\mathbf0& D_0}$

putting this all together
$\pmatrix{\lambda_1 \mathbf u_1^* \\*} = \pmatrix{ \mathbf 1^T \\*} = \pmatrix{1 & \mathbf 0^*\\\mathbf0& D_0}U^* = DU^* = U^* A$

thus
$\lambda_1 \mathbf u_1^* = 1 \cdot \mathbf 1^T = \mathbf 1^T = \mathbf 1^T A$
i.e. $\mathbf 1$ is a left eigenvector for $A$

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Since $A^TA = AA^T$ and $AJ = J$ then \begin{align} A(A^TJ)= A^T(AJ) = A^TJ \end{align} i.e. $A^TJ$ is an eigenvector of $A$ with eigenvalue $1$. This also means $A^TJ-J$ is an eigenvector of $A$ with eigenvalue $1$ or equivalently, \begin{align} A^TJ-J \in E(1)= \text{Nul}(A-I) = \text{Row}(A-I)^\perp \end{align}

But, we also know that $A^TJ-J \in \text{Row}(A-I)=\text{Col}(A^T-I)$. Hence it follows $A^TJ-J=0$ which is the desired conclusion.

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  • $\begingroup$ Why is $A^\top J - J$ in $\text{Row}(A^\top - I)$? $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 25, 2020 at 23:09
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    $\begingroup$ @angryavian I made a typo. Earlier, I wrote $\text{Nul}(A-I) = \text{Row}(A^T-I)^\perp$ when it should have been $\text{Nul}(A-I) = \text{Row}(A-I)^\perp$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 25, 2020 at 23:45
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I got the answer.

Let $x=A^T1-1$. We can show that $x=0$ by showing that $x^Tx=0$. Use $A1=1$ and $AA^T=A^TA$.

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  • $\begingroup$ This is correct. I gave a full explanation of your answer below. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 25, 2020 at 7:18
  • $\begingroup$ Yeah. Thanks:-) $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 25, 2020 at 8:05

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