1
$\begingroup$

I am studying time dependent perturbation theory.


Context

We introduce a Hamiltonian: $$H(t)=H_{0}+\Delta(t)$$

We also say that: let $\{|n\rangle\}$ be an orthonormal basis of $\mathcal{H}$ with $H_{0}|n\rangle=E_{n}|n\rangle$ and expand a general state as $$ |\psi(t)\rangle=\sum_{n} \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i} E_{n} t / \hbar} a_{n}(t)|n\rangle $$ Using this expansion in the time dependent Schrödinger equation $\mathrm{i} \hbar \partial|\psi\rangle / \partial t=H(t)|\psi(t)\rangle$ gives $$ \sum_{n}\left(a_{n} E_{n}+\mathrm{i} \hbar \dot{a}_{n}\right) \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i} E_{n} t / \hbar}|n\rangle=\sum_{n} a_{n}\left(E_{n}+\Delta(t)\right) \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i} E_{n} t / \hbar}|n\rangle \tag{1} $$ Contract with $\langle k|$ to obtain $$ \mathrm{i} \hbar \dot{a}_{k}(t)=\sum_{n} a_{n}(t) \mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}\left(E_{k}-E_{n}\right) t / \hbar}\langle k|\Delta(t)| n\rangle \tag{2} $$


Question

Why couldn't I cross out the exponential terms on both sides of equation $(1)$? They are the same multiplicative factor corresponding to each term in the sum. However, if I did that, I wouldn't have left any exponential for line $(2)$.

I do understand how we reached line $(2)$, if we don't simplify the first line by dropping the $\mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i} E_{n} t / \hbar}$ terms.

Why cannot I drop the $\mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i} E_{n} t / \hbar}$ terms in line $(1)$?

Maybe some example where I am also not allowed to drop the same multiplicative terms from both sides of an equation would help my understanding.

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

A parallel question, much simpler, would be given real sequences $a_n$, $b_n$, and $c_n$, can we cancel out $c_n$ to get

$$ \sum_{n=1}^N a_n c_n = \sum_{n=1}^N b_n c_n \implies \sum_{n=1}^N a_n = \sum_{n=1}^N b_n? $$

No, because the two sides are not products at all. The notation $\sum a_n c_n$ means $\sum [a_n c_n]$ and not $\left[ \sum a_n \right] c_n$ (which makes less sense: what is the $n$ for $c_n$?)

For an even more specific example, with $N=3$, $(a_n) = (2, 2, 1)$, $(b_n) = (1,1,2)$, and $(c_n) = (1, 2, 3)$, the real sums above become

$$ 2 \cdot 1 + 2 \cdot 2 + 1 \cdot 3 = 9 = 1 \cdot 1 + 1 \cdot 2 + 2 \cdot 3 $$

but

$$ 2 + 2 + 1 \neq 1 + 1 + 2 $$

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.