Takács (1959, Example 2) states:
Let $\{ \xi_n \}$ be a sequence of independent and identically distributed positive random variables, with $ \xi_0 = 0 $.
Let $\zeta_n = \xi_0 + \xi_1 + \dots + \xi_n$ (for $n = 0, 1, 2, \dots$).
Suppose that there exists a positive constant $A$ such that $$\lim_{x \to \infty} x^{1/2} \, \mathbb{P}\{\xi_n > x\} = A $$ Then $$ \lim_{n \to \infty} \mathbb{P}\left\{ \dfrac{\zeta_n}{A^2n^2} \leq x \right\} = F_{1/2}(x) $$ where $$ F_{1/2}(x) = \begin{cases} 2\left[ 1 - \Phi\left( \left( \dfrac{\pi}{2x} \right)^{1/2} \right) \right] & \text{if}\ x \geq 0 \\ 0 & \text{if}\ x < 0 \end{cases} $$ and $\Phi(x)$ is the distribution function for the standard normal distribution $$ \Phi(x) = \frac{1}{(2\pi)^{1/2}} \int_{-\infty}^{x} e^{-y^2/2} \, dy $$
Why is this statement true?
Update: Revised the question title after learning about fat-tailed random variables. Also noted this question about central limit theorems for heavy-tailed random variables.
Reference
Takács, L. (1959). On a sojourn time problem in the theory of stochastic processes. Trans. Amer. Math. Soc. 93, 531–540