One formulation of Farkas's Lemma for semidefinite programs is the following statement:
Let $A_1,\ldots,A_n$ be symmetric $m \times m$ matrices. The system $$ x_1A_1 + \cdots + x_nA_n \succ 0 $$ where $x_i\in\mathbb{R}$ is infeasible iff there exists a symmetric matrix $Y\neq 0$ such that $\mathrm{Tr}(A_i^\top Y) = 0$ for all $i = 1,\ldots,n$, and $Y \succeq 0$, where $A \succ B$ means $A - B$ is positive definite and $A \succeq B$ means $A - B$ is positive semidefinite.
I found this formulation here: http://www.ime.usp.br/~fmario/sdp/lovasz.pdf (page 16).
It appears from the proof that we could strengthen this statement by replacing "$x_1A_1 + \cdots + x_nA_n \succ 0$" with "$x_1A_1 + \cdots + x_nA_n \succeq 0$", but I'm leery of the subtle differences that arise when considering SDPs (as opposed to LPs). Is it also true that $x_1A_1 + \cdots + x_nA_n \succeq 0$ is infeasible iff there exists such a $Y$ as described above?
Thanks!